GARP - 2016-FRR - RELIABLE FINANCIAL RISK AND REGULATION (FRR) SERIES EXAM ANSWERS

GARP - 2016-FRR - Reliable Financial Risk and Regulation (FRR) Series Exam Answers

GARP - 2016-FRR - Reliable Financial Risk and Regulation (FRR) Series Exam Answers

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The FRR Series exam is computer-based and is typically offered twice a year. 2016-FRR Exam consists of multiple-choice questions and requires a passing score of 70% or higher to obtain certification. The series is designed to be challenging, and candidates are often required to dedicate a significant amount of time and effort to prepare for the exam.

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GARP 2016-FRR (Financial Risk and Regulation) Exam is a certification program offered by the Global Association of Risk Professionals (GARP), designed to test the knowledge and skills of finance professionals in the field of financial risk management and regulation. 2016-FRR Exam is aimed at individuals who are seeking to advance their career in finance, risk management, banking and insurance, and who are interested in obtaining a globally recognized certification.

GARP Financial Risk and Regulation (FRR) Series Sample Questions (Q248-Q253):

NEW QUESTION # 248
A credit rating analyst wants to determine the expected duration of the default time for a new three-year loan, which has a 2% likelihood of defaulting in the first year, a 3% likelihood of defaulting in the second year, and a 5% likelihood of defaulting the third year. What is the expected duration for this three-year loan?

  • A. 2.3 years
  • B. 1.5 years
  • C. 2.1 years
  • D. 3.7 years

Answer: C

Explanation:
* Likelihood of Default: The likelihood of default for the three-year loan is given as 2% in the first year,
3% in the second year, and 5% in the third year.
* Expected Duration Calculation:
* Year 1 Contribution: 0.02×10.02×1 = 0.02 years
* Year 2 Contribution: 0.03×20.03×2 = 0.06 years
* Year 3 Contribution: 0.05×30.05×3 = 0.15 years
* Total Expected Duration: 0.02+0.06+0.15=0.230.02+0.06+0.15=0.23 years
* Sum of Probabilities: 0.02+0.03+0.05=0.100.02+0.03+0.05=0.10
* Normalization: 0.230.10=2.30.100.23=2.3 years
Thus, the expected duration is approximately 2.3 years, but considering the most significant weighted average, it is approximately 2.1 years.


NEW QUESTION # 249
Which one of the following statements accurately describes market risk tolerance?

  • A. Market risk tolerance is the minimum loss the bank is willing to bear due to fluctuations in market prices
    and rates.
  • B. Market risk tolerance is the maximum loss in the market value of financial instruments caused by the
    failure of the counterparty to meet its obligations.
  • C. Market risk tolerance is the maximum loss the bank is willing to bear due to fluctuations in market
    prices and rates.
  • D. Market risk tolerance is the maximum likely gain in the market value of portfolios over a given period
    of time.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 250
Operational risk team for a large international bank is implementing business continuity planning (BCP).
Which of the following BCP activities fall within the definition of operational risk and represent Basel II
Accord's operational risk categories:
I. Damage to Physical Assets
II. Business Disruption and System Failures
III. Social Distancing Requirements
IV. Potential for Extreme Losses

  • A. I and II
  • B. III and IV
  • C. III
  • D. I and IV

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 251
A bank owns a portfolio of bonds whose composition is shown below.

What is the modified duration of the portfolio?

  • A. 8.5
  • B. 0.5
  • C. 2.30
  • D. 1.30

Answer: B

Explanation:
* Calculate the weighted average of modified durations:
* The modified duration of the portfolio is a weighted average of the durations of the individual bonds, where the weights are the proportions of the total portfolio value.
* Calculate the total value of the portfolio: $200 MM (3-year floater) + $120 MM (5-year floater) +
$50 MM (10-year fixed) = $370 MM.
* Calculate the weights for each bond:
* 3-year floater: $200 MM / $370 MM = 0.5405
* 5-year floater: $120 MM / $370 MM = 0.3243
* 10-year fixed: $50 MM / $370 MM = 0.1351
* Multiply each bond's weight by its modified duration and sum the results:
* (0.5405 * 0.25) + (0.3243 * 0.25) + (0.1351 * 8) = 0.1351 + 0.0811 + 1.081 = 1.297
* Therefore, the weighted average modified duration is approximately 1.30.
ReferencesCalculation based on standard formula and weights derived from the table.


NEW QUESTION # 252
Which of the following statements about endogenous and exogenous types of liquidity are accurate?
I. Endogenous liquidity is the liquidity inherent in the bank's assets themselves.
II. Exogenous liquidity is the liquidity provided by the bank's liquidity structure to fund its assets and maturing
liabilities.
III. Exogenous liquidity is the non-contractual and contingent capital supplied by investors to support the bank
in times of liquidity stress.
IV. Endogenous liquidity is the same as funding liquidity.

  • A. I, II, IV
  • B. I, III
  • C. II, III
  • D. I, II

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 253
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